Holy Spirit

Monday, June 24, 2013

The Importance Of Meditation by Pastor Chris



Pastor Chris Oyakhilome
For a long time, many of God's children equated meditation with just thinking or pondering over the Word. However meditation is much more than thinking deeply on a subject. That is just one aspect of meditation; there's more to it revealed in God's Word.

Meditation is one of the godly exercise that you must practice for a life of dominion and glory. It is a vital activity for every child of God, and its power cannot be overemphasized.

In Joshua 1:8, the Bible says "this book of the law shall not depart out of thy mouth; but that shalt meditate on it therein day and night, that thou mayest observe to do according to all that is written therein: for then thou shalt make thy way prosperous, and then thou shalt have good success.

Three levels of meditation


The word "meditation" in the verse of scripture above is translated from the Hebrew word "hagar" which means to "imagine; mutter". It also means to "roar". This immediately tells us that there are three levels of meditation, each of which is vital.


The first level of meditation is to visualize God's Word as you study it. This means to ponder or think quietly on God's Words in picture. As you keep these pictures in your mind, the Word will be driven into your spirit and will take root there.


The second level of meditation is to mutter God's Word. This means to speak God's Word under your breath, to yourself, over and over again. As you do this, the Word will become personal to you. It will go beyond the written page, beyond the reading of your mind and intellect, into your spirit. It will becomes God's Word to you, and not some distant words written in the Bible.


The third level of meditation is to roar God's Word! At this stage, you shout God's Word out loud. In the book of Isaiah 31:4, the Bible says, "For thus hath the Lord spoken unto me, like as the lion, and the young lion roaring on his prey, when a multitude of shepherds is called forth against him, he will not be afraid of their voice, nor abase himself for the noise of them..."

In this verse of scripture, the Bible beautifully translated the same Hebrew word "hagar" as "roar". The purpose of this kind of meditation is to drown every other thoughts in your consciousness, including thoughts that the devil may try to bring and cause the Word of God in your spirit to rise. When you begin shouting God's Word to yourself like this, some other folks may think something is wrong with you, but continue. The Bible says "...for then thou shalt make thy way prosperous, and then thou shalt have good success".



The power of meditation

Meditation drives the Word into your spirit. It takes the Word from your mind into your spirit. In your mind, you can still reason out the Word of God; but when it gets tour spirit, it becomes real and personal to you. That Word may not have any scientific explanation, but you just know that it is reality, and there is nothing that can take it from you.

Also, it is important to understand that meditation is what gives you rhema. Rhema is the spoken Word of God. It is the "now" Word of God for your situation, and you receive it by meditating on the written Word, which is logos. Logos has the ability to produce results in you and to deliver an inheritance to you, but it will not make you enjoy your inheritance. The Word that changes things is rhema. With rhema, there is no condition in your body that cannot be changed.

Another powerful result of meditation is that it will make you the Word! This is God's purpose for giving you His Word, so we would become the Word.


As you practice meditating consistently on God's Word, you find that you will begin to think, talk, and act like God. Your whole life will become a reflection of the Word.


When this happens, it will be impossible for any sickness to remain in your body, because the Word would have permeated your entire body system and taken charge of your being. Understand that the Word has the divine energy to affect everything about your life including your physical body. Proverbs 4:22 says "For they (the Word) are life unto those that find them, and health to all their flesh".

There may be a situation in your body that you desire a change;find someplace where you can be alone and meditate on God's Word. You may not feel like it; especially when your body is telling you something different, but do it. The Word is sure to prevail over that situation, and causes you to walk in victory always!

Meditation Produces Success- Rev Joyce Mayer



Rev Joyce Mayer
 ● God doesn’t want Satan to fill your mind. He doesn’t want you to give him the opportunity to inject wrong and negative thoughts into your head


My son, give attention to my words; Incline your ear to my sayings. Do not let them depart from your eyes; Keep them in the midst of your heart; For they are life to those who find them, and health to all their flesh.
—Proverbs 4:20–22 NKJV



When we refer to “meditating,” we mean we ponder something and give it our full attention. A French couple helped me see that meditation is like eating. They will take a bite of food after they have enjoyed the way it looks on the plate. They comment on the pleasant aroma and often mention one or two special ingredients. They chew slowly and deliberately, and they sometimes even comment on how it makes the inside of their mouth feel.

That seems a bit too much for most Americans, but that’s a good picture of meditating on God’s Word. We don’t just wolf down a few words or a verse and hurry on to the next. We pause to reflect on a word, a phrase, or a concept. We compare that scripture with others that come to mind. We feel in no hurry to dash to the end of the chapter. The words are there for us to savor and enjoy. We should learn to be more concerned about quality than quantity. It is more important to get a deep understanding of one verse of Scripture than it is to read five chapters and understand nothing.

Meditating on God’s Word demands discipline. 


We live in such a fast-paced world that few of us make time to meditate. We should form a habit of setting aside time just to sit and think about God’s Word and the wonderful promises He has made to those who believe in Him. The blessed person mentioned in Psalm 1 is the person who meditates on God’s Word “by day and by night.” The expression “by day and by night” means that it is a major part of a person’s life. It’s a way of saying that thinking about the Word of God should be a regular part of daily activity. This will require casting down wrong thoughts when they come and choosing to think on things that will benefit us. If we keep ourselves focused, it pays off spiritually.

Rev Joyce Mayer

I spend time with God in prayer and in study of His Word each morning, but I also apply the Word to situations that I deal with all throughout the day. During the writing of this devotion, I got some bad news by phone, and my response was to quote and think about various promises in God’s Word. His Word strengthens us and helps us keep our peace and joy.

I titled this “Meditation Produces Success” because it’s important for us to understand that contemplating the meaning of Scripture isn’t simply a good thing to do or an activity reserved for scholars. It’s God’s command to all of us. It is a requirement for true success.
I thought of the instructions to Joshua as he prepared to lead the people into the Promised Land. The first few verses of the book of Joshua provide God’s direction for him.

There were at least two million people going into the land, and the responsibility of leading them was immense.

God promised to be with Joshua as He was with Moses, and He urged the new leader to be very courageous. Then He said, “This Book of the Law shall not depart out of your mouth, but you shall meditate on it day and night, that you may observe and do according to all that is written in it. For then you shall make your way prosperous, and then you shall deal wisely and have good success” (Joshua 1:8).

The instructions seem clear. Joshua had the commands of God, and his primary responsibility was to contemplate those words. By immersing himself in the law, he was learning to understand the mind of God more fully. God went on to say that if Joshua kept his mind and heart on the law, he would be prosperous and successful.
Too often people focus on their problems instead of meditating on God’s promises. As they do, their problems seem to get bigger, and God’s power diminishes.

God doesn’t want Satan to fill your mind. He doesn’t want you to give him the opportunity to inject wrong and negative thoughts into your head. For the devil to control your life, all he needs to do is to control your thoughts. Make a decision right now that you will not allow him to do that. Don’t let him defeat you.
Father God, You have told me to meditate on Your Word, and I ask You to help me do that. I want Your Word to be the focus of my life. When problems come, help me turn to Your Word immediately. When Satan attacks my mind, remind me to counterattack with Your Word. As I meditate on Your Word regularly, I believe I will see good progress in my life. I ask this in Jesus’ name. Amen.

Christ Is Our Confidence by Joyce Meyer

Joyce Meyer
For we [Christians] are the true circumcision, who worship God in spirit and by the Spirit of God and exult and glory and pride ourselves in Jesus Christ, and put no confidence or dependence [on what we are] in the flesh and on outward privileges and physical advantages and external appearances. —Philippians 3:3

God is merciful toward us and wants to bless and prosper us. He sees our heart attitude and our faith in Jesus. When we have confidence in God and His love and kindness, we can progress to living confidently and enjoying the life He wants for us. 

Note that I said confidence in God, not in ourselves. Usually, people think of confidence as self-confidence, such as TV self-help gurus or [what] athletes promote when urging us to “Believe in yourself!”

I beg to differ. I want to make it clear, right from the start, that our confidence must be in Christ alone, not in ourselves, not in other people, not in the world or its systems. The Bible states that we are sufficient in Christ’s sufficiency (Philippians 4:13), so we might also say that we are confident through Christ’s confidence. Or another way to say it would be, “We have self-confidence only because He lives in us, and it is His confidence that we draw on.”

Joyce Meyer

Sunday, June 23, 2013

What About Divorce?


By Wayne Jackson
"Consider the following case: John and Mary are married, but John has grown tired of the relationship. He has, to use his expression, ‘fallen out of love’ with Mary. He is not interested in another woman, he just wants to live the single life again. "
John’s attitude is like that of so many self-centered people in today’s world. He seems to labor under the illusion that he can abandon the most sacred of human relationships, simply at his own whim. The attitude is one of consummate selfishness and stands in opposition to a number of biblical principles.
(1) Marriage is a life-long commitment. Once a marriage covenant has been made, unless it is dissolved for a biblical reason (e.g., death or sexual infidelity – Rom. 7:2; Mt. 5:32; 19:9), it is an abiding obligation. “. . . [T]he woman that has a husband is bound by law to the husband while he is living,” i.e., as long as he is alive (Rom. 7:2; 1 Cor. 7:39).
The Bible is clear on the matter of the perpetual design of the marriage union.
(2) God is the Author of the marriage institution. It is he who joins the man and woman to one another in this sacred union (Mt. 19:6). It is, therefore, only the Creator who may determine when a divorce proceeding may be initiated.
And the fact of the matter is this: God has authorized divorce solely for the cause of fornication (Mt. 5:32; 19:9). To initiate a divorce upon any other basis, therefore, is to go beyond that which is authorized by divine law (cf. 1 Cor. 4:6 – ASV).
Such an action is a presumptive transgression of Heaven’s marriage law (1 Jn. 3:4). Just as no person is eligible to marry without the sanction of divine law, in like manner, no one is free to divorce without the authority to do so.
(3) When one enters a marriage relationship, he or she enters into a covenant agreement with a companion; that agreement is witnessed and sealed by God (see Ezek. 16:8; Mal. 2:14).
To divorce a marital partner without divine authority is to become a “covenant breaker” – an action strongly condemned in the Scriptures (Rom. 1:31). Read the catalog of sins mentioned in this context for some idea of how God views such a transgression.
(4) The marriage covenant carries inherent responsibilities. When a person commits to the marriage relationship, he or she accepts certain obligations of this relationship (see 1 Cor. 7:3-5; Eph. 5:22ff; 1 Tim. 5:8). To vacate a marriage by the utilization of an unauthorized divorce is to flaunt these sacred responsibilities.
Unscriptural divorce creates an environment of temptation. When a marriage partner initiates a capricious divorce, he subjects his mate to the temptations of yielding to unlawful sexual fulfillment (cf. 1 Cor. 7:5).
This is very likely the point that Jesus made in the sermon on the mount when he declared that a man who divorces his wife, for a reason other than fornication, “makes her an adulteress” (Mt. 5:32). The meaning probably is this: He subjects her to the temptation of finding another companion, which relationship would constitute adultery (cf. Arndt & Gingrich, Greek Lexicon, Chicago: University of Chicago, 1967, p. 528).
Are we so naive as to think that God will not hold one accountable for such neglect?
Marriage is a sacred and most serious undertaking. Our youth must be taught not to enter into this union lightly.
And when one yields to this covenant relationship, he or she must remain committed to it – if at all possible.

What Is Adultery?

By Wayne Jackson
Several years ago it would hardly have been necessary to discuss the meaning of “adultery.” Virtually every educated person knew that adultery is a sexual relationship that somehow or another breaches a marriage relationship. In recent years though, a new view of adultery has been espoused by a minority element within the church. It is the notion that adultery is merely the act of repudiating one’s marriage vows (whether or not the covenant-breaker ever enters a new marital union).
The motive behind this novel theory is perfectly transparent. It is a result-oriented dogma. It suggests that if one commits adultery, i.e., he repudiates his marriage vow (admittedly an evil thing), then he may simply “repent” of that action, i.e., pledge not to do it henceforth, and, if he desires at some subsequent point, he may secure a new mate. According to this view, one can abandon his spouse for any trivial reason, pledge to never do such again, and then enter a new marriage.
Such an ideology makes an absolute mockery of the New Testament teaching on divorce and remarriage. But some are vigorously promoting this new view of adultery. (See note #1 below.) It is thus imperative that attention be focused upon the true meaning of that term as revealed in the Bible.
One of the fundamental rules of New Testament interpretation is known as usus loquendi. This is a Latin phrase which suggests that the common meaning (or the prevalent usage) of a term is to be assumed, unless some special significance is demanded by the context. The question is, therefore: how did the ancient writers—both profane and sacred—employ the term “adultery”?

The Classical Writers

The Greek word for adultery is moicheia. The classical Greek writers assigned a very clear meaning to the term. It had to do with the illicit sexual conduct of a married person, or with a married person.
For instance, Lysias (ca. 401 B.C.) writes concerning Euphiletus, an Athenian, who killed Eratosthenes after catching him committing adultery with his wife. In his defense he contends that the Court of the Areopagus has “expressly stated that whoever takes vengeance on an adulterer moichon, caught in the act with his spouse, shall not be convicted of murder” (1.30).
Xenophon (ca. 401 B.C.) describes the adulterer who “enters the woman’s quarters, knowing that by committing adultery moicheuonti he is in danger of incurring the penalties threatened by the law.” He suggested that this is foolish since “there are many remedies to relieve him of his carnal desire without risk” (Memorabilia II.1, 5).
In the second century A.D., Sextus Empiricus wrote: “Adulterers moichous are, of course, punished by law with us, but amongst some peoples, intercourse with other men’s wives is indifferent” (Pyrrhonism III.209).
There is no question about what the Greeks meant by “adultery.”

The Greek Old Testament

In the third century B.C., the Hebrew Old Testament was translated into the Greek language. That version is known as the Septuagint. How is the term moicheia employed in the Greek Old Testament?
Moses wrote that the man who “commits adultery moicheusetai with another’s wife” is subject to death (Leviticus 20:10). Note that adultery was not merely walking out on one’s spouse; it involved an act with another’s wife.
Concerning ancient Jerusalem, God said: “I have seen thine abominations, even thine adulteries moicheia, and thy neighings, the lewdness of thy fornication, on the hills in the fields” (Jeremiah 13:27).
Though “adulteries” is here used figuratively of Judah’s apostasy, there are clear sexual overtones associated with the word. The fact is, sexual activity was a common feature of Canaanite idolatry.
In Ezekiel 16, Jehovah describes Jerusalem as “a wife that committeth adultery! moichomene that taketh strangers instead of her husband!” (v. 32). She had “opened [her] feet to every one that passed by, and multiplied [her] fornication” (v. 25). The graphic nature of this language simply cannot be misconstrued.
Again, to worldly, idol-worshiping Israel, the prophet Hosea said: “[L]et her put away her fornications from her face, and her adulteries moicheian from between her breasts” (2:2). The allusion to an immoral embrace is obvious.
Clearly, in the Old Testament, adultery had to do with a sexual violation of marriage.

General New Testament Evidence

How does the New Testament use the term “adultery”? Is there any indication that the word means merely the abandonment of a marriage? We confidently affirm that there is not a scrap of evidence supporting this idea. Let us consider several New Testament passages in which the word “adultery” occurs.
First, Jesus spoke of those who “look upon a woman to lust after her.” He says that such one has “committed adultery” with her in his heart (Matthew 5:28). The term “lust” demonstrates that a sexual inclination is involved.
Do men lustfully fantasize about breaking covenants? That is not a viable viewpoint. Moreover, those who have “eyes full of adultery” (2 Peter 2:14) are surely not ogling a marriage document with a view to tearing it up!
Second, on a certain occasion the Pharisees brought a woman to Christ who had been caught “in adultery” (John 8:4). In the Greek text, the term is moicheuomene, a present tense participle. She was in the process of committing adultery when apprehended; the writer even emphasizes that she was “in the very act.”
What was the act? Was she merely shredding a marriage license? Was she slamming the door as she abandoned her home? Can one really miss the meaning of “adultery” in this context?
Third, the writer of the book of Hebrews admonishes Christians to “let the bed be undefiled: for fornicators and adulterers God will judge” (13:4). Exactly how does an adulterer “defile the bed”?
Let the Bible answer this question. According to the Old Testament text, Reuben, the son of Jacob, “went up to [his] father’s bed; then defiled it” (Genesis 49:4). What was his sin? He “lay with Bilhah his father’s concubine” (35:22). There is no question but that “adultery” has a sexual import in Hebrews 13:4. See also the connection between “bed” and “adultery” in Revelation 2:22.

Divorce and Remarriage Contexts

Let us now view the use of “adultery” as such appears in two New Testament contexts which specifically deal with the divorce and remarriage issue. Let us see whether or not the covenant-breaking definition will fit reasonably into these passages. After all, it is well known that if one correctly defines a term, the definition may be substituted for the word itself, and the sense of the passage will not be compromised.
First, Jesus declared that the man “who divorces his wife, saving for the cause of fornication, makes her an adulteress” (Matthew 5:32). Contemplated here is an innocent woman who has been victimized by her husband. She has been put away. She did not break the marriage covenant. Her husband did. And yet she, should she remarry, is stigmatized as an adulteress. (See note #2 below.)
This statement makes no sense at all if “adultery” is defined as covenant-breaking. But it makes perfect sense if the woman involves herself in a new sexual union without the benefit of a divinely authorized divorce.
Second, in Matthew 19:9, Jesus taught that anyone who divorces his companion, without her having been unfaithful, is committing adultery. The force of the form “committeth adultery” (a Greek present tense) is this: the offender keeps on committing adultery.
As Reisser (1976, 583) notes, he “enters the realm of adultery.” Professor William Beck (1963, 37) renders the verb in this fashion: “he is living in adultery.” Each act of sexual union with an unauthorized partner is adulterous.
However, this grammatical nuance does not fit the covenant-breaking definition of “adultery,” as set forth by some of our brethren. The advocates of this view contend that the adultery was a one-time event; it occurred when the divorce was initiated, and it was concluded at that point. That position is not consistent with the thrust of the present tense in this passage.

The Language Authorities

In conclusion, we should observe that some of the proponents of this new and novel theory have acknowledged that they are without scholastic support for their argument.
In his debate with this writer, Truman Scott (21) confessed that there has not been produced a single “Bible dictionary, commentary, Greek lexicon, Greek word study, [or] specific treatises on divorce and remarriage . . . within the last 350 to 400 years” that agrees with his position, namely that adultery is simply covenant-breaking. The brother would be a “law unto himself” when it comes to defining words.
Seldom have language authorities so unanimously agreed upon the meaning of a word as they have in the case of “adultery.” In the Old Testament the term na'aph (adultery) “represents ‘sexual intercourse with the wife or betrothed of another man’”(Harris, Archer, and Waltke 1980, 542).
The corresponding Greek word describes “one who has unlawful intercourse with the spouse of another” (Vine 1991, 17). Such testimony could be multiplied many times over. But why bother when the leading defender of this position concedes there is no scholastic support for his position?
A number of respected brethren have shown the utter folly of the theory under review. J. D. Thomas, writing in The Firm Foundation (June 7, 1983), charged that the “covenant breaking” ideology has “no support whatever from scholarship,” and “is an invented idea pure and simple.” He correctly diagnoses the situation: this theory is a capitulation to the immoral pressures of our culture (Jackson and Scott, Appendix IV).
Hugo McCord has carefully reviewed this “bizarre definition of adultery” and denounced it (n.d., 160-64). Jack Lewis has also written an excellent article on this theme (1992, 19-20).

Conclusion

We do not help our worldly contemporaries by contriving theories which leave them in their sins. Yet that is precisely what some of our brethren have done. May God grant us the courage to speak the truth in love; but yes, it must be the truth.
Notes:
1 This view has been advocated in recent years by several brethren. Olan Hicks defended this concept in The Connally-Hicks Debate (1979). John Edwards argued the position in An In Depth Study of Marriage and Divorce (1985). Perhaps the most widely-known proponent of the adultery-covenant-breaking theory is Truman Scott, affiliated with the Sunset School of Preaching in Lubbock, Texas. For his views, see _Divorce & Remarriage – A Study Discussion* by Wayne Jackson and Truman Scott (1983). (See also Jackson 2002.)
2 The unscrupulous husband “causes her to commit adultery (by contracting a subsequent marriage)” (Arndt and Gingrich 1967, 528). Lewis notes: “It is assumed she will marry again” (1976, 93). Some argue that the passive form, “makes her an adulteress,” means that she is subjected to the reputation of being an adulteress, the presumption being that her husband would not have divorced her unless she had been unfaithful. In any event, the word “adulteress” can only be viewed in terms of sexual activity.

Is “Lust” the Equivalent of “Fornication”?

By Wayne Jackson
The word “fornication” derives from the Greek term porneia, one of a cognate group of five words that together occur fifty-five times in the New Testament. The noun form is found twenty-five times, predominately in the letters of Paul. The word is generic in scope in that it refers to a variety of physical sexual acts between persons who are not married legitimately. It will be the goal of this article to establish that when fornication, and a related term, “adultery” (moicheia), are used literally, they are physical acts that constitute the exclusive rationale for divorce and possible remarriage.
In the Greek version of the Old Testament (LXX), a form of porneia is used of Tamar, with whom Judah had engaged in intercourse, having assumed that she was a “harlot” (Genesis 38:15; cf. v. 24). In ancient Babylon it was believed that sexual intercourse ensured crop fertility. Herodotus, the Greek historian, tells of the yearly requirement of all women to sacrifice their bodies in “fornication” to a stranger in the temple of the goddess Mylitta (Rawlinson 1952, 1.199).
Mostly in the Old Testament, however, the terms “fornication” and “adultery” are employed symbolically of the actions of the Israelite people who broke their “marriage covenant” with Jehovah by worshipping idols (cf. Ezekiel 16:26,29; Hosea 1:2).
Sexual union with a married person (with whom one has no right to intimacy) is both fornication and adultery (cf. 1 Corinthians 5:1). All adultery is also fornication; not all fornication is adultery (cf. 1 Corinthians 7:2). The technical difference between fornication and adultery is implied in sin lists, in which both terms are included (cf. 1 Corinthians 6:9).
Specifically then, fornication is any “unlawful sexual intercourse” (Danker and Bauer 2000, 854), whether such is a man-woman liaison, a homosexual action (cf. Jude 7), pedophilia, or sex-for-hire, as in prostitution (Brown 1975, 497). The plural form, “fornications” (1 Corinthians 7:2), hints of the various venues by which this horrible sin may be committed.
I must add this point. Bible translations that render porneia more generically (e.g., “sexual immorality”) are misleading. There are various forms of sexual immorality (e.g., exposing one’s body in seductive clothing) that do not fall under the definition of fornication, though clearly they are sinful.

Is “Lust” Fornication?

Rather recently, some have alleged that “lust” falls into the category of fornication/adultery. If, therefore, a married person should discover that a spouse has read a book or viewed pictures/films containing explicit sexual activity, the assumption is that the offender has lusted, hence has committed adultery—even if there has been no physical contact with another person. Therefore, the transgressor may be justly divorced according to Matthew 5:27-28; the innocent victim would then have the option to remarry. The text reads as follows:
You have heard that it was said, “You shall not commit adultery”: but I say unto you, that every one who looks on a woman to lust after her has committed adultery with her already in his heart.
A brief analysis of the passage is in order.
Christ quoted from the Ten Commandments, “You shall not commit adultery” (Exodus 20:14). Clearly this refers to a physical sex act by which one violates a marriage relationship. But the Savior expands the moral lapse by addressing the mental disposition that lends itself to the overt physical act.
He speaks of the man who longingly looks (the verb is a present tense form) at someone other than his spouse — with a sustained desire for intercourse. This is no passing glance. The lusting person is doing mentally what he (or she) almost certainly would do physically, if given the opportunity. One scholar notes:
Christians must recognize those thoughts and actions which, long before any overt sexual sin, make the possibility of giving in to temptation more likely, and they must take dramatic action to avoid them (Blomberg 1992, 109; emphasis added).
A “heart” sin is serious, but it does not have the equivalent temporal consequence the physical act does. Professor Robert Mounce observed that “the act of adultery” has “far more serious social consequences” (e.g., death under the Mosaic system — Leviticus 20:10) than lust, though both the desire and the act are sinful (1991, 46). Lust is of “the same nature” as the act, but it is not the act itself (Nixon 1970, 823). F.F. Bruce expressed the obvious, when he noted that “unchaste thought” is “enforceable by no earthly code or court” (1977, 25).
One additional note is worthy of consideration. Some scholars contend that it is grammatically possible that the phrase usually rendered “to lust after her” might carry the sense of “so as to get her to lust” (Carson 1984, 151; Blomberg 1992, 108-109). This would place a heavy responsibility upon one who provokes lust, as well as the person who indulges in such. Where does this leave the woman who seeks a divorce on the ground of lust, yet she herself flaunts her semi-nude body on the beach? Certainly without credibility, to say nothing of a flawed exegesis.
In view of the foregoing factors, we raise the crucial question again. Is the “lust” of Matthew 5:28 the consequential equivalent of the physical act of adultery, thus a cause for divorce and remarriage on the part of an innocent victim? We believe the answer is a firm “No.” The fallacy of this position can be demonstrated rather persuasively.

The Consequence of the “Lust = Fornication” Argument

1) In the immediate context Christ made a comparison between anger and murder (5:21-22), just as he did with lust and adultery. J.A. Alexander noted that the principles involved in the two situations are “identical” (1861, 141). If the reasoning reflected in the theory sketched above were valid, would it not be the case that both the murderer and the one merely angry with his brother should be subjected to the same temporal penalty (e.g., execution or imprisonment) by the legal authorities? Elsewhere the New Testament also declares that “hate” of one’s brother, in some sense, is the equivalent of “murder” (1 John 3:15), but no one contends that hate has the same legal ramification.
2) If the term “adultery” is to be pressed literally in Matthew 5:28, should the remedy that is subsequently imposed (i.e., the plucking out of the eye and the amputation of one’s hand) likewise be pressed literally? Clearly Christ is dealing with mental acts that, as evil as they are, do not yet rise to the level of physical murder or adultery, but are, in principle, serious sins. Certainly there is a nexus between what goes on in the heart, and what becomes manifest in physical actions (cf. Mark 7:21-23). Lust, when it “conceives,” bears sin (James 1:15), i.e., sin of a greater consequential nature.
3) If one of the persons in this lust/adultery scenario entertains impure thoughts, and the object of that lust acted in such a way as to cause the lust, would not logic suggest that the mates of both parties — the one lusting, and the accessory to the act — would have the right of divorce and remarriage? Can the serious Bible student not see that this throws the divorce/marriage controversy into a maze of confusion as folks attempt to decipher the mental states and levels of culpability of the alleged transgressors?

Matthew 19:9

The use of salacious literature/films, etc., within any context is evil. But this type of perversion most likely falls under the category of lasciviousness, a “comprehensive term” that can embrace various sexual aberrations (see Thayer 1958, 79-80; Balz and Schneider 1990, 169). The use of pornography certainly can constitute “adultery” in the heart. However, that is not what Jesus had in view as a basis for divorce in Matthew 19:9. In that context Christ unquestionably had in mind the physical act of sexual intercourse as evidenced by the fact: (a) that he had just spoken of the man and woman becoming “one flesh” in marriage; and (b) he subsequently spoke of the “eunuch” status.
A fundamental principle of Bible interpretation is that words must be interpreted literally unless there is a compelling reason for assigning to them a figurative meaning. The term “adultery” is not employed in a metaphorical sense in Matthew 19:9. In Matthew 5:28, however, “heart” adultery is a metaphor for evil desire (Danker et al. 2000, 509; cf. Romans 1:24).
Here is another example. “Friendship” with the world, in one sense, can be viewed as “adultery” (cf. James 4:4), but mere worldliness is not a cause for divorce and remarriage. Suppose a woman should claim: “My husband is a very worldly man. He gets drunk and gambles away his money. Friendship with the world is ‘adultery.’ Therefore, I have just grounds for a divorce and remarriage.” Can we not see that the lady has pressed “adultery” into a mold never intended by the sacred writer? It is a mistake to take a figurative use of the word “adultery,” and import it into a text that discusses a literal relationship.
If one were to frame the type of argument as that just under review with reference to Matthew 5:28, and press metaphorical language into literalism, he would be forced to contend that the person who fornicates with a prostitute, and thus has become “one” with her in that act (1 Corinthians 6:16), is “married to” the immoral person, and must remain in that union. Incredibly, a few inept students have attempted to sustain this ludicrous position! But such is absolutely untenable.
It is a serious interpretative mistake to force a literal meaning upon an expression that obviously is used figuratively. I have discussed and demonstrated this fallacy extensively in my book, Biblical Figures of Speech.

Some Quesions about Divorce and Remarriage

By Wayne Jackson
The following questions deal with the general theme of marriage and divorce.
Question: Recently the view has been advanced that when two single people commit fornication, by that act they become “married” and must remain together for life. Would you respond to this?
Answer: This idea is so absurd that one can only wonder how it ever saw the light of day. How perverse can one be to confuse “marriage” with “fornication”?
The quickest, briefest response to this question would be an appeal to 1 Corinthians 7:1ff. This passage was written to relatively new Christians in a Greek church in ancient Corinth. This city was very “loose” morally speaking. Sexual promiscuity was common.
Doubtless these Christians, some of whom had very immoral histories (cf. 6:9-11), had been taught that they now must remain sexually pure. But what could they to do to prevent yielding to their desires, and committing fornication? Paul’s answer is this: “Let a person marry.”
If fornication is the equivalent of marriage, logically Paul’s statement would have to read, “to prevent marriage, let a man marry,” which, of course, makes no sense.
Or what of this? If two homosexuals engaged in fornication, would they be married? If a man became unfaithful to his wife by committing fornication, would he then have two wives? This theory is utterly void of merit!
This perverse idea doubtless had its origin with Paul’s statement that the man who joins himself to a harlot becomes “one body” with her (1 Corinthians 6:16). But what the advocates of this position fail to realize, is that words can mean different things in varying contexts.
For example, God and Christ are said to be “one” (John 10:30); also, a man and his wife are “one” (Ephesians 5:31). But these two “ones” assuredly are not used in the same sense.
A husband and wife become “one flesh” through the sexual union, by virtue of the covenant relationship into which they have entered (Genesis 2:24; Matthew 19:6; cf. Ezekiel 16:8). There is no covenant relationship in raw fornication.
The term “one” is employed in 1 Corinthians 6:16 in a very limited sense. In the sex act of fornication, two bodies are joined and so become “one” in sin—not one in marriage. The fornicator is “one” in character with the harlot he engages. There is no moral distinction between the two sinners.
Question: My husband has left me. I discovered on his computer more than 800 pornographic pictures, and solicitations to women (and men as well) for sex, with meeting dates/times. He has acted in a lewd way before our daughters on several occasions. I have great reason to believe he has been unfaithful, but I cannot prove it. Some say I have no right to a divorce unless I catch him in the very act. Can you help me with this?
Answer: The Bible teaches there is but a single cause for divorce and remarriage — that of fornication by a spouse against an innocent victim (Matthew 5:32; 19:9). No reasonable person would contend that a wife would have to see the actual “act” before she could have sufficient evidence to file for a scriptural divorce. In fact, it probably would be rare that a husband or wife would be able to apprehend the adulterer “in the very act.”
The offended party ought to have a strong enough case, however, to be satisfied in his/her own mind, so that such a one does not linger in doubt for the remainder of his/her life—should he/she decide to remarry.
I must say that in this case there appears to be considerable “circumstantial” evidence of sexual activity on the part of this man with other people. I think it would be extremely unlikely that his illicit activity has been confined to computer images. But this is a judgment the violated spouse would have to make. Our hearts go out to anyone who has been a victim of such abuse.
Question: I have always been taught that there is only one cause for a divorce, with the privilege of remarrying, and that is when a person’s mate commits fornication. But our preacher says that “fornication” is any kind of “unfaithfulness.” So if your husband is unfaithful (like quitting the church), you are free to divorce and remarry.
Answer: Unfortunately your preacher appears to be one of the many who has become adept at twisting the scriptures (2 Peter 3:16), in order to justify a novel and compromising view of divorce/remarriage.
“Fornication” and “unfaithfulness” are not synonymous terms. All fornication is unfaithfulness, but not all unfaithfulness is fornication. Ultimately, any sin is an act of unfaithfulness. Certainly “sin”—any sin, one or many—never can be viewed as “faithfulness.” All sin is serious.
However, if the “fornication” mentioned in Matthew 5:32 and 19:9 is a reference to unfaithfulness in general, then any husband or wife could divorce a mate at any time for any sin, e.g., lying, losing one’s temper, forsaking the assembly, failing to give as prospered on the Lord’s day, etc. But since all people are sinners (1 John 1:8), that would suggest that the “unfaithful” has a right to divorce the “unfaithful,” and then marry a new “unfaithful” spouse.
It is true that sometimes the term “adultery” is used figuratively in the Bible to depict worldliness (cf. James 4:4), or lust (2 Peter 2:14). Be that as it is, the real question is this: How is the term “fornication” used in Matthew 19:9?
Quite obviously it is employed in its literal sense; such is evident from the fact that the disciples (who were accustomed to the relaxed divorce policy of the Mosaic regime – Matthew 19:8) expressed the view that the law of Christ was too rigorous. Jesus informed them that some might find it too demanding—in which case they could live as “eunuchs.” This obviously defines the nature of “fornication” in this context.
Question: Since the New Testament teaches that the only justifiable cause for a divorce is fornication on the part of one’s mate, what is a woman to do whose husband drinks, hits her on occasion, and verbally abuses her constantly?
Answer: No one is obligated to suffer abuse at the hand of an insensitive bully. A woman has the right to safety and security—both physically and emotionally. If her well-being is in jeopardy (by physical abuse), or her emotional stability is ravaged by constant verbal assault, she has a perfect right to find a haven of refuge and peace. Paul deals with a circumstance somewhat similar to this in 1 Corinthians.
Let us suppose this case. A pagan woman becomes a Christian, but her husband has no interest in Christianity. What should she do?
The apostle says that if her spouse is “content to dwell with her,” she should not leave him, but she is to abide in the relationship with a view of converting him to Christ (1 Corinthians 7:13-14).
But what if the unbeliever is not content in the relationship (as certainly would be reflected by abusive conduct)? Paul suggests that under dire circumstances she might need to leave the “under-the-same-roof” dwelling arrangement. But in such a case (no fornication having been involved), “should she depart, let her remain unmarried, or else be reconciled to her husband” (7:11). A further word of caution, however, should be kept in mind. A wife should be very confident that she had not contributed overtly to her mate’s discontent. Should that be the case, her leaving would be quite unjustified.
The apostle sees the possibility of separation (in a marriage undefiled by fornication), and potential reconciliation, but offers no license for divorce and remarriage under these conditions alone.
If a husband abandons his wife (or vice versa), she is not required to be “enslaved” [see “bondage” v. 15] to this thoughtless person who has forsaken his/her marital responsibilities. Marriage is not designed to be an institution comparable to slavery! If a departing mate should become sexually unfaithful, the betrayed mate could take advantage of the Matthew 19:9 provision. Otherwise, the bond remains intact.
Abuse per se does not break the wedlock (cf. Ezekiel 16:38). Only sexual infidelity can do that. The conscientious Christian will navigate carefully through the troubled waters of domestic discord, and search his own soul for possible culpability.

The Erosion of Marriage

By Wayne Jackson
According to a 2004 census, some 5,080,000 American couples are living together without the benefit of marriage. Several decades ago this practice was relatively rare and considered a sexual aberration; today it scarcely raises an eyebrow.
Even in religious circles the walls of sexual restraint have crumbled. For example, according to a recent article in the New York Times, a special committee report on “Human Sexuality” within the Presbyterian Church (U.S.A.) called on the church to replace the historic Christian prohibition of sexual relations outside of marriage with a “new ethic” evaluating sexual activity, whether between married or unmarried people, or between heterosexuals or homosexuals, by broadly defined standards of responsibility, “mutuality,” and caring. Such has created a furor with many Presbyterians.
The allowance of so-called “gay marriages,” in both Massachusetts and California, demonstrates how far from legal rationalism our nation has departed.
Numerous professing “Christian” clergymen are suggesting that the sexual regulations set forth in the Bible merely were cultural and the restrictions imposed in biblical times may be ignored in our contemporary, “post-modern” world.
This position was argued recently at the self-designated “Christian Scholars Conference” on the campus of David Lipscomb University in Nashville, Tennessee. Jared Cramer, who is currently affiliated with the Anglican Church (Episcopal), contended that certain sexual stipulations of the New Testament are merely the result of temporal cultural conditions, and are not binding rules for modern society.
Cramer maintains that a great variety of sexual unions are permissible, provided they are: “loving,” “faithful,” and “monogamous” (Homosexuality: But Why?). Strangely, he inconsistently appeals to the same Bible he largely rejects for the authority supporting those qualities he contends are essential for validating sexual relationships!

New Testament Teaching

The teaching of the New Testament regarding sexual conduct, however, is not cultural; rather, it is based upon moral principles divinely imposed by the Creator, metaphorically depicted as the “Potter” who “has a right over the clay” (Romans 9:21). These restrictions are to prevail in all societies and for all time. If one contends that “fornication” is simply a culturally conditioned activity, he might as well argue that idolatry, thievery, covetousness, extortion, drunkeness, and murder similarly depend upon the fluctuations of culture (cf. 1 Corinthians 6:9-10; 1 Timothy 1:9-10).
In the New Testament, all sexual activity between people outside of a legitimate marriage relationship is designated as “fornication.” The Greek word porneia is a generic term, and it includes sexual intercourse between single people, or married people with other partners (Danker et al. 2000, 854). Porneia also embraces such actions as homosexuality, promiscuity, paedophilia, and prostitution; in a word, “any kind of illegitimate sexual intercourse” (Reisser 1971, 497).
The inspired Paul clearly taught that to avoid “fornications” each man could have his own wife, and each woman could have her own husband (1 Corinthians 7:2). If one cannot control his (or her) desire for sexual fulfillment, there is a solution, and it is marriage, not promiscuous indulgence (7:9).
In Corinth, sexual license was the order of the day, yet the apostle, bucking the “culture” of that environment, warned: “The body is not for fornication”(6:13). When an unmarried couple engages in fornication, the bed is “defiled” and God will judge this immoral activity (Hebrews 13:4; cf. 1 Thessalonians 4:3-7). Jesus Christ uncompromisingly taught that fornication degrades and condemns a person (Matthew 15:19-20).
Living together, apart from a legitimate marital relationship, is not God’s will for man and woman, and many harmful consequences result from ignoring the divine pattern.
For example, according to an article published some years back in Psychology Today_, studies have shown that eighty percent of the women who live with their spouses before marriage are more likely to be divorced or separated than those who do not. There also appears to be a higher percentage of violence—thirty percent among couples who live together without a marriage commitment (_TIME 1988, 54).
God’s plan was designed for maximum human happiness, the welfare of society, and the facilitation of one’s journey to heaven! Violations of the sacred sexual code assault each of these goals.

In Christ – Neither Male nor Female


By Wayne Jackson
The notion has long been prevalent in sectarian circles (and is growing in the church of the Lord) that there are no sexual distinctions to be observed in Christ. The claim is made that Paul, in Galatians 3:28, abolished sexual differences so that men and women may function in identical capacities in public church activity—preaching, leading prayers, perhaps even serving as elders, etc. Such a theory is at variance with the New Testament for the following reasons.
First, it ignores the context of Galatians 3:28. In this portion of Scripture, the apostle is dealing with sexual equality in the matter of salvation; but, as Professor Colin Brown observes, Paul’s statement
is not a call to abolish all earthly relationships. Rather, it puts earthly relationships in the perspective of salvation history. As Paul goes on to say, “And if you are Christ’s then you are Abraham’s offspring, heirs according to promise” (Galatians 3:29; cf. also Romans 10:2). All who are in Christ have the same salvation status before God; but they do not necessarily have the same function (1976, 570).
The fact that Paul later instructs servants to be obedient to their masters (Ephesians 6:5ff), in spite of the fact that Galatians 3:28 says there is “neither bond nor free” in Christ, is in itself a refutation of the theory under consideration.
Second, Paul himself was unaware that his teaching abolished sexual roles, for when he wrote 1 Timothy, which was penned later than Galatians, he limited the public service of women.
The New Testament makes it very clear that the men are to lead the acts of worship in assemblies of mixed sexes. In 1 Timothy 2:8, Paul instructs that “the men [andras – accusative plural of aner, thus males only pray in every place.” Obviously there is a special kind of praying under consideration; it is the leading of prayer that is in view!
Commenting upon this verse, a noted Greek scholar has well said, “The ministers of public prayer must be the men of the congregation, not the women” (Nicole 1956, 106). Bengel says that Paul is “speaking of public prayers, in which the heart of the people follows close after the language of him who prays” (1877, 252). Bloomfield notes that the expression “in every place” means “in every or any place [appropriate to public prayer]” (1837, 356). Ellicott says the allusion of the passage “is clearly to public prayer; cf. verse 1. ‘The men’ is thus in antithesis to ‘the women,’ verse 9 . . . . the conducting of the public prayers more particularly belonged to the men” (1978, 48). The foregoing observations could be multiplied many times over, and they stand in bold relief to the superficial reflections of the modern liberationists who would have us go beyond that which is written!
In 1 Timothy 2:12, Paul declares, “I permit not a woman to teach, nor to have dominion over a man, but to be in quietness.” The negative conjunction oude (nor) here is explanatory in force, revealing that the apostle is forbidding any teaching or similar activity in which a woman exercises authority over a man (cf. Lenski 1937, 563; Danker et al. 2000, 734). And it is obvious from the preceding context that he considers leading a public prayer as an act of authority over those who are thus led! It is, therefore, a serious error to advocate the idea that women may lead the worship in groups of mixed sexes. And we might add that the principle not only applies to formal worship services, such as those of the Lord’s Day, but also those semi-private “devotionals” wherein both men and women are jointly worshiping. The New Testament does not authorize a woman to lead a man in worship under any circumstance.
It is becoming increasingly fashionable to assert that the New Testament instruction, which limits the sphere of women’s leadership activity, is grounded in cultural peculiarities of first-century society, and so is not applicable today. Some appear to be suggesting, in fact, that if one does not have a PhD in Hebrew, Greek, and Roman cultural anthropology, there’s not much of the New Testament that he can understand.
How then can one know whether a New Testament teaching is age-lasting, or whether it is merely culturally oriented, hence, temporal? Here are some guidelines.
  1. If a particular context is specifically connected with primitive customs by a New Testament writer, then the teaching unquestionably may be viewed in that light.
  2. If a certain context is ambiguous, that is, if one cannot decide whether it deals with abiding principle or temporal culture, he should, in humility, ask, “What is the safest course to pursue?”
  3. If a context is grounded in historical truth that relates to man as man, hence, transcends the cultural, such should settle the matter. One is dealing with an age-lasting injunction.
In the four major contexts where Paul discusses male and female relationships (1 Corinthians 11:2-16; 14:33b-35; Ephesians 5:22-23; 1 Timothy 2:8-15), the principle of subjection and the application of that principle to specific situations (e.g., a woman not leading men in prayer), are based upon historical facts that go back to the very commencement of the human family. Thus it is not a culturally-oriented instruction.
When one begins to argue that the modern woman is not bound by 1 Timothy 2 (to limit her role in public activity), it is but a short step to denying that the wife is obligated to be in submission to her husband (Ephesians 5), for both contexts have the same historical heritage!

Woman’s Role in the Church

By Wayne Jackson
And Jehovah God formed man of the dust of the ground, and breathed into his nostrils the breath of life; and man became a living soul (Genesis 2:7).
And Jehovah God said, It is not good that the man should be alone; I will make him a help meet for him (Genesis 2:18).
And Jehovah God caused a deep sleep to fall upon the man, and he slept; and he took one of his ribs, and closed up the flesh instead thereof: and the rib, which Jehovah God had taken from the man, made he a woman, and brought her unto the man. And the man said, This is now bone of my bones, and flesh of my flesh: she shall be called Woman, because she was taken out of Man (Genesis 2:21-23).
The ancient Jewish Rabbis were fond of saying:
God had not formed woman out of the head, lest she should become proud; nor out of the eye, lest she should lust; nor out of the ear, lest she should be curious; nor out of the heart, lest she should be jealous; nor out of the hand, lest she should be covetous; nor out of the foot, lest she be a busybody; but out of the rib, which was always covered (Edersheim 1957, 146).
This indicated the modesty that was to characterize her.
The divine portrait of woman, as painted on the Biblical canvas, is remarkable indeed. The Genesis narrative distinctly lends itself to the impression that Eve, as the culmination of the creative week, was a climactic jewel in Jehovah’s handiwork.
As one wanders down the corridors of Old Testament history he is ever refreshed by encounters with such as Sarah, Rebekah, Leah, Rachel, Miriam, Deborah, Abigail, Ruth, Esther, and other noble women. Thus could the apostle Peter direct attention to those “holy women” who aforetime “hoped in God” (1 Peter 3:5).
Nor are the feminine names that adorn the New Testament record less illustrious. The names of those women who ministered to the Master, and later those who served with distinction in the church, have become proverbial.

The Plight of Ancient Woman

In order to appreciate the role of New Testament womanhood, one must, by way of contrast, consider the plight of ancient woman as she stood in the world in general.
In the antique Greek world, women were considered inferior to men. Aristotle viewed women as somewhere between slaves and freemen. Wives led lives of seclusion and practical slavery.
In Rome women enjoyed greater practical freedom, though not legal, than in Greece, but licentiousness was rampant. Chastity and modesty among women were virtually unknown (note Paul’s reference to female homosexuality in Romans 1:26). Wives were truly second-class persons; more honor was shown to a man’s mistress than to his wife.
Though the Jewish opinion of womanhood during the time of Christ needed considerable improvement—a male’s morning prayer expressed thanks to God that the petitioner was neither a Gentile, a slave, or a woman—such attitudes were the result of heathen influences.
While women were somewhat legally inferior under the law of Moses, practically speaking, wives and mothers in Israel enjoyed the greatest of dignity. Mothers were to be honored (Exodus 20:12) and to rebel against, or show disrespect for, one’s mother was a most serious offense which could be punished by death (Deuteronomy 21:18ff; 27:16).
Though the Hebrew woman was under the authority of her father and later of her husband, she enjoyed considerable freedom and was not shut up in the harem . . . . Though women did not ordinarily inherit property, in a case of a sonless home the daughters might inherit (Num. 27). It was a man’s world, but Hebrew law protected woman’s person. Rape was punishable. Harlotry was forbidden (Lewis 1966, 425).
Edersheim pointed out that the Hebrew husband
was bound to love and cherish his wife, to support her in comfort, to redeem her if she had been sold into slavery, and to bury her, on which occasion even the poorest was to provide at least two mourning fifes and one mourning woman. He was to treat his wife with courtesy, for her tears called down Divine vengeance (n.d., 270)
If it be objected that the Old Testament practice of polygamy, along with its ease of divorce for men, placed women in an unfavorable status, it may be replied that such matters were tolerated in that “moonlight” dispensation due to the “hardness” of Israel’s hearts (Matthew 19:8), and were to be abolished with the introduction of the “better” system.

Womanhood in the New Testament

The very first chapter of the New Testament portends the status to be accorded women under the law of Christ; there, four women are alluded to in the legal ancestral catalog of the Lord. Though the practice of mentioning women in such lists was not wholly unknown, it is, in the words of A. B. Bruce, “unusual from a genealogical point of view” (1956, 62).
Paul affirmed that “God sent forth his Son, born of a woman” (Galatians 4:4). The birth of Jesus to the virgin Mary was the turning point in human history for women.
The Savior openly defied the attitudes of his day in his frequent dealings with women. He conversed with the woman at Jacob’s well (a Samaritan at that!)—a thing that shocked even the disciples (John 4:27). He refused to bend to Pharisaical pressures that he shun the sinful woman who anointed and kissed his holy feet (Luke 7:36ff). Godly women were numbered among those who ministered to the Christ (Luke 8:3), some of them accompanying him even to the foot of the cross (John 19:25).
Though the roles of specific New Testament women will be discussed later in this presentation, it is important at this point that some general considerations be noted:

Men and Women Are Both Subject to Christ’s Marriage Law

Under the law of Christ, both male and female are equally obligated to the marriage ordinance; neither husband nor wife should depart from the other (1 Corinthians 7:11). But should a husband (as in the case of an unbeliever) leave his wife, she is not bound (as a slave) (Arndt and Gingrich 1957, 205) to follow the deserter (1 Corinthians 7:15). And in the case of marital infidelity, the woman is granted the equal privilege of divorce and remarriage (cf. Matthew 19:9; Mark 10:11, 12).

Men and Women Are Dependent upon Each Other

Inspiration clearly stresses the mutual dependence of men and women in Christ. Paul says, “Nevertheless, neither is the woman without the man, nor the man without the woman in the Lord” (1 Corinthians 11:11). Neither is complete without the other.

Men and Women Equal in Salvation

In the matter of salvation, both stand on equal footing before God. Paul says concerning those who have obeyed the gospel: “[T]here can be no male and female; for ye all are one in Christ Jesus” (Galatians 3:28). Though, as Professor Colin Brown observes:
This, however, is not a call to abolish all earthly relationships. Rather, it puts these relationships in the perspective of salvation history. As Paul goes on to say, “And if you are Christ’s then you are Abraham’s offspring, heirs according to promise” (Gal. 3:29; cf. also Rom. 10:2). All who are in Christ have the same status before God; but they do not necessarily have the same function (1976, 570).
Galatians 3:28 is certainly in harmony with 1 Peter 3:7 which makes it clear that women are “joint-heirs of the grace of life.”

Women Rule the Household

The New Testament authorizes woman a domain of authority within the home. Younger widows are advised to marry, bear children, and “rule the household” (1 Timothy 5:14).
Lenski says:
“To rule the house” means as the wife and mother in the home, to manage the household affairs. This is the domain and province of woman, in which no man can compete with her. Its greatness and its importance should ever be held up as woman’s divinely intended sphere, in which all her womanly qualities and gifts find full play and happiest gratification (1961, 676).
This does not indicate, of course, that woman’s authority in the home equals the man’s. He is the head of the wife and she is to be willingly in subjection to him (Ephesians 5:22, 23). Yet, he should lovingly allow her the freedom to exercise authority in the management of domestic matters, for God has ordained it.
A historian has noted:
The way in which the Church began to lift woman up into privilege and hope was one of its most prompt and beautiful transformations from the blight of paganism. Too long in the darkness, she was now helped into the sunlight (Hurst 1897, 146).
Such a transformation impressed even the heathen world; Libanius, a pagan writer, exclaimed: “What women these Christians have!”

The Divine Subordination of Woman

By divine design, man is to be the “head” of woman—in society, in the church, and in the home (1 Corinthians 11:3; Ephesians 5:22-24). This graduation of authority rests on two bases: first, the original constitution of the sexes as created, and, second, woman’s role in the fall.
Concerning the former, the Bible teaches:
  1. Woman was made as a help for man—not the reverse (Genesis 2:18, 20).
  2. Paul wrote: “For the man is not of the woman, but the woman of the man: for neither was the man created for the woman; but the woman for the man” (1 Corinthians 11:8, 9).
  3. And again, “For Adam was first formed, then Eve” (1 Timothy 2:13).
As to the woman’s role in the fall, she believed Satan’s lie that she might become as God, and hence, was “beguiled” (Genesis 3:13; 2 Corinthians 11:3) or “deceived” (1 Timothy 2:14); whereas Adam, laboring under no such deception (1 Timothy 2:14), merely sinned due to his weakness for the woman (Genesis 3:12). Accordingly, woman’s subjection was increased after her fall (Genesis 3:16).
These facts do not suggest that woman is inferior to man, but they do mean (to those who respect the testimony of Scripture) that she is subordinate in rank to man. It ought to be emphasized that as Christ’s subjection to the Father involved no deprivation of dignity (Philippians 2:5-11), so there is none in woman’s subjection to man. So, as we shall presently observe, because of these historical facts, the sphere of woman’s activity has been divinely circumscribed.

Women’s “Lib” or the Word of God?

As the saying goes, “From Adam’s rib to Women’s Lib, you’ve come a long way, baby.” Indeed! Some have gone a considerable distance from the word of God!
Every significant movement within society will eventually, to some degree, make itself felt in the church. The phenomenon of “women’s liberation” is no exception. There are those in the church who are clamoring that women must throw off the yoke of male domination and claim their rightful place in the body of Christ. Some are suggesting that women can be elders, preachers, and leaders in public worship.
There have been two basic approaches to this problem: Some have adopted a completely infidelic stance by asserting that certain “troubling passages” in the New Testament are merely the result of Pharisaic and Rabbinic prejudices reflecting the backward ignorances of the first century, and so, such are not authoritative for today’s church. Others, attempting to assume a more conservative position, claim there is Biblical support for feminine equality in leadership roles.
It is, however, the burden of this presentation to show there is no scriptural authority for women elders, women preachers, or women worship leaders.
First, it should hardly be necessary to labor over the point that no woman is authorized to serve as an elder, the Bible being so obvious on the matter. The elder is to be the “husband [Greek, aner—a male as opposed to a woman; Arndt and Gingrich, 65) of one wife” (Titus 1:6; 1 Timothy 3:2). The “elder women” (presbuteras) of 1 Timothy 5:2 (cf. Titus 2:3) are simply older women in contrast to the younger (neoterous), and not church leaders.
Secondly, the New Testament does not authorize a female (public preaching) ministry; but rather positively prohibits such. Perhaps the most effective way to approach this matter is to examine some of the currently circulated arguments in support of women preachers:

New Testament women prophesied (Acts 2:18; 21:9; 1 Corinthians 11:5).

It is assumed that prophesying was preaching, hence, women of the first century preached. The word “prophesy” is from two Greek roots, pro (forth) and phemi (to speak). It is a very general term and may mean “to teach, refute, reprove, admonish, comfort” (Thayer 1958, 553; cf. 1 Corinthians 14:3). It can simply suggest the idea of “giving thanks and praising God” (1 Chronicles 25:3). The meaning of the word in a given situation must be determined by the context as well as other information in the Scriptures.
Paul limits the extent of a woman’s forth-speaking (teaching, etc.) when he writes: “I permit not a woman to teach, nor to have dominion over a man, but to be in quietness” (1 Timothy 2:12). The negative conjunction ,oude (nor), here is explanatory in force, revealing that the kind of teaching prohibited by the apostle is that which assumes dominion over the man (Lenski, 563).
Certainly women may teach (cf. Titus 2:3); they may, in certain ways, even teach men. There is a reciprocal teaching in singing (Colossians 3:16), and privately, in conjunction with her husband, Priscilla was involved in teaching Apollos (Acts 18:26). But a woman may not assume the position of teacher, with the man subordinated to the role of student, without violating a New Testament command.

Was Phoebe a “Deaconess”?

On the basis of Romans 16:1-2, some have contended that:
  1. Phoebe was a church official (deacon);
  2. the church was to “assist her,” implying her authority over the church;
  3. she had been a “helper” (prostatis) of many, implying “authority, discipline, over-seeing.”
All of this is alleged to show that Phoebe was a preacher-leader in the early church.
However:
  1. The word diakonos simply means a “servant” (Matthew 23:11; John 2:5, etc.), and any official attachment to the term must be demanded by the context, as in Philippians 1:1 and 1 Timothy 3:8.
  2. The fact that the saints were encouraged to “assist” Phoebe did not imply her authority over them. The Greek word paristerni meant to “come to the aid of, help, stand by” (Arndt and Gingrich, 633). When Paul said, “[T]he Lord stood by pareste me” (2 Timothy 4:17), he certainly was not asserting that he exercised authority over Christ!
  3. The word prostatis (helper) does not necessitate oversight. If so, then Phoebe exercised authority over Paul, for she had been his helper as well as others! Though it is found only here in the New Testament, the term, which can connote simply rendering assistance, is used in a third-century B.C. letter from a son to his father (the verbal form): “[T]here will be nothing of more importance for me than to look after you for the remainder of life, in a manner worthy of you, and worthy of me” (Moulton and Milligan 1963, 551).

Euodia and Syntyche

In Philippians 4:2-3, Paul comments that Euodia and Syntyche “labored” with him in the gospel; he calls them, along with others, his “fellow-workers.” Again, the assumption is made that this necessitates an authoritarian position comparable to the apostle’s. However, Christians are said to be “God’s fellow-workers” (1 Corinthians 3:9); obviously, this does not suggest that we are authorized to act as deity! Countless Christian ladies have assisted gospel preachers in numerous ways without ever having become public preachers themselves.

Junia an Apostle?

It is said that Junia (KJV), a woman, was an apostle and thus certainly occupied a place of authority in the primitive church (Romans 16:7).
In the first place, in the Greek text the name is Junian (in the accusative case—the gender of the name not being evident); it could either be Junia (feminine), or more likely, Junias (masculine). Origen, a writer of the third century A.D., considered it a reference to a man (Lightfoot 1957, 96).
But secondly, it is not even certain that Junias is here identified as an “apostle.” The phrase, “of note among the apostles” (ASV), is rendered by Zahn as “famed, mentioned with honor in the circle of the apostles,” (418) giving the sense of being well—known by the apostles, rather than actually being an apostle.
In the third place, the word “apostle” is used occasionally in the Bible in a nontechnical sense to denote a messenger. Jesus says that “one sent” (apostolos) is not greater than the sender (John 13:16). The word need not imply one who has dominion over another, nor even a preacher.

What About Women Prophets in the Old Testament?

Some argue that Paul’s admonition that women be in subjection is limited by the expression, “as also saith the law” (1 Corinthians 14:34), and since the law allowed women prophets (as in the case of Miriam, Huldah, and Anna), and even a woman judge (Deborah), so preaching executives are permissible in the church today.
However:
  1. When Miriam prophesied it was “all the women” that went out after (Exodus 15:20), and there is no evidence that she preached to men.
  2. Though Huldah was a prophetess, the solitary record of her prophesying involved some men going to her where they communed privately (2 Kings 22:14ff; 2 Chronicles 34:22ff). It is impossible to find public preaching here.
  3. Anna was a prophetess “who departed not from the temple” (Luke 2:36-38). In describing the temple, Josephus (Wars of the Jews 5.5.2) says “there was a partition built for the women” that separated them from the men; this was “the proper place wherein they were to worship.” It cannot be proved that she publicly preached to mixed audiences.
  4. Deborah was a prophetess of the hill country of Ephraim, but there is no indication that she publicly proclaimed God’s message to the multitudes; rather, “the children of Israel came unto her for judgment” (Judges 4:5). She gave prophetic judgment as a “mother in Israel” (5:7). The fact that she judged at all is a dramatic commentary on the sickening weakness of the Israelites during this period, and Deborah’s song (chapter five) laments this woeful condition. This was but one of those occasions where Jehovah accommodated his working to Israel’s weaknesses (cf. 1 Samuel 8:9; Matthew 19:8).

Is 1 Corinthians 14:33 Applicable Today?

Perhaps a further comment regarding 1 Corinthians 14:33 is in order. May this context be used to oppose women preachers?
One view contends that it may not. It is alleged that contextual considerations indicate that the meeting contemplated in 1 Corinthians 14 is not comparable to any convened in the church today, and so, these verses are not applicable to church assemblies of today (Woods 1976, 106-112).
A more reasonable view that also recognizes that 1 Corinthians 14 has to do primarily with a unique first-century situation, i.e., the reception of spiritual gifts, sees Paul here enunciating essentially the same principle as set forth in 1 Timothy 2:12ff.
H. P. Hamann writes:
If we have the same writer in both letters writing on the same matter, we have the right to allow one text to explain the other, and especially to let the clearer or more definite throw light on the less precise. So 1 Tim. 2 is the key for the understanding of 1 Cor. 14 (1976, 8).
Professor Hamann then parallels the two as in the chart below (click on the chart to enlarge).

It is certain that 1 Corinthians 14:33ff lends no support to the notion of women preachers. Such are not sanctioned anywhere in the Scriptures.

Men Are Designated Leaders for Worship Assemblies

Finally, the New Testament makes it clear that the men are to lead the acts of worship in assemblies of mixed sexes.
In 1 Timothy 2:8, Paul instructs that “the men [andras—accusative plural of aner, males only] pray in every place.” Now, woman may certainly pray (1 Corinthians 11:5)—and it would hardly be denied that she could pray in every place; however, there is a sense in which only males may pray in every place. Obviously, it is the leading of prayers in mixed groups that is confined to the man.
Commenting upon this verse, a noted Greek scholar has well said, “The ministers of public prayer must be the men of the congregation, not the women” (White 1956, 106). The same principle, of course, would also apply to other acts of public worship.
It has become fashionable to assert that Paul’s teaching regarding feminine subordination was aimed at conformity to the culture of his day—somewhat as instructions concerning slavery; and, it is claimed, as the New Testament contained seeds for the abolition of slavery, so, it also contained the seed for woman’s eventual full equality with man in church life.
The alleged parallel is simply not valid. In the four major contexts where Paul discusses male-female relationships (1 Corinthians 11:2-16; 14:33b-35; Ephesians 5:22-23; 1 Timothy 2:8-15), the principle of subjection, as well as its application to specific situations, are grounded upon historical facts of Old Testament history, and not upon culture.
(Note: Some contend that the principle in 1 Corinthians 11:2-16 is binding today, but not Paul’s specific application [Roberts 1959, 183ff], while others believe that both the subjection principle and its specific application are required today [Jackson 1971].]
While it is important to study ancient culture so as to better understand the Bible, it must not be an overriding factor in interpretation. To substitute culture for a stated apostolic reason is to turn exegesis into eisegesis (Sproul 1976, 13ff).

Concluding Remarks

It is regrettable that such major attention must be given to the negative side of this issue, but such appears to be necessary in view of prevalent error currently being propagated. The New Testament abounds with examples of godly women who, consistent with their assigned roles, served their Master with dignity and honor. Yes, women whose names will still be mentioned with admiration long after the modern-day feminists are gone and forgotten!
God’s women make a vital contribution to the kingdom of Christ on earth. Whether they are continuing steadfastly in prayer (Acts 1:14), doing good works and almsdeeds (Acts 9:36), showing hospitality (Acts 12:12; 16:14; 1 Timothy 5:10), teaching the word in harmony with divine authority (Acts 18:26; Titus 2:3, 4), being good wives (Proverbs 31:10ff), rearing godly children (2 Timothy 1:5; 3:14, 15), or accomplishing various other commendable tasks, let us “rise up and call them blessed.” And may their name be Legion!

The Role of Woman

By Wayne Jackson
And Jehovah God formed man of the dust of the ground, and breathed into his nostrils the breath of life; and man became a living soul.
And Jehovah God said, It is not good that the man should be alone; I will make him a help meet for him.
And Jehovah God caused a deep sleep to fall upon the man, and he slept; and he took one of his ribs, and closed up the flesh instead thereof: and the rib, which Jehovah God had taken from the man, made he a woman, and brought her unto the man. And the man said, This is now bone of my bones, and flesh of my flesh: she shall be called Woman, because she was taken out of Man (Genesis 2:7, 18, 21-23).
The ancient Jewish Rabbis were fond of saying: “God had not formed woman out of the head, lest she should become proud; nor out of the eye, lest she should lust; nor out of the ear, lest she should be curious; nor out of the heart, lest she should be jealous; nor out of the hand, lest she should be covetous; nor out of the foot, lest she be a busybody; but out of the rib, which was always covered,” indicating the modesty that was to characterize her (Edersheim 1957, 146).
The divine portrait of woman, as painted on the biblical canvas, is remarkable indeed. The Genesis narrative distinctly lends itself to the impression that Eve, as the culmination of the creative week, was a climactic jewel in Jehovah’s handiwork.
As one wanders down the corridors of Old Testament history, he is ever refreshed by encounters with such delightful characters as Sarah, Rebekah, Leah, Rachel, Miriam, Deborah, Abigail, Ruth, Esther, and other noble women. Thus could the apostle Peter direct attention to those “holy women” who aforetime “hoped in God” (1 Peter 3:5). Nor are the feminine persons who adorn the New Testament record less illustrious. The names of those women who ministered to the Master, and later those who served with distinction in the church, have become proverbial.

The Plight of Ancient Woman

In order to appreciate the role of New Testament womanhood, one must, by way of contrast, consider the plight of ancient woman as she stood in the world in general.
In the antique Greek environment, women were considered inferior to men. Aristotle viewed women as somewhere between slaves and freemen. Wives led lives of seclusion and practical slavery. In Rome women enjoyed greater practical (though not legal) freedom than in Greece, but licentiousness was rampant. Chastity and modesty among women were virtually unknown (note Paul’s reference to female homosexuality in Romans 1:26). Wives were truly second-class persons; more honor was shown to a man’s mistress than to his wife.
The Jewish opinion of womanhood during the time of Christ needed considerable improvement. A male’s morning prayer expressed thanks to God that the petitioner was neither a Gentile, a slave, nor a woman. Such attitudes, however, were the result of heathen influences.
While women were somewhat legally inferior under the law of Moses, practically speaking, wives and mothers in Israel enjoyed great dignity. Mothers were to be honored (Exodus 20:12), and to rebel against or show disrespect for one’s mother was a most serious offence which could be punished by death (Deuteronomy 21:18; 27:16).
Though the Hebrew woman was under the authority of her father and later of her husband, she enjoyed considerable freedom and was not shut up in the harem. . . . Though women did not ordinarily inherit property, in a case of a sonless home the daughters might inherit (Num. 27). It was a man’s world, but Hebrew law protected woman’s person. Rape was punishable. Harlotry was forbidden (Lewis 1966, 425).
Edersheim pointed out that the Hebrew husband
was bound to love and cherish his wife, to support her in comfort, to redeem her if she had been sold into slavery, and to bury her, on which occasion even the poorest was to provide at least two mourning-fifes and one mourning woman. He was to treat his wife with courtesy, for her tears called down Divine vengeance (Edersheim n.d., 270).
If it be objected that the Old Testament practice of polygamy, along with its ease of divorce for men, placed women in an unfavorable status, it may be replied that such matters were tolerated in that “moonlight” dispensation due to the “hardness” of Israel’s hearts (Matthew 19:8), and were to be abolished with the introduction of the “better” system of the New Testament.

Womanhood in the New Testament

The very first chapter of the New Testament portends the status to be accorded women under the law of Christ. There, four women are alluded to in the legal ancestral catalog of the Lord. Though the practice of mentioning women in such lists was not wholly unknown, it was, in the words of A. B. Bruce, “unusual from a genealogical point of view” (1956, 62).
Paul affirmed that “God sent forth his Son, born of a woman” (Galatians 4:4). The birth of Jesus to the virgin Mary was the turning point in human history for women. The Savior openly defied the attitudes of his day in his frequent dealings with women. He conversed with the woman at Jacob’s well (a Samaritan at that—a thing that shocked even the disciples [see John 4:27]). He refused to bend to Pharisaical pressures that he shun the sinful woman who anointed and kissed his holy feet (Luke 7:36ff). Godly women were numbered among those who ministered to the Christ (Luke 8:3), some of them accompanying him even to the foot of the cross (John 19:25).
Though the roles of specific New Testament women will be discussed later in this presentation, it is important at this point that some general considerations be noted.
First, under the law of Christ, both male and female are equally obligated to the marriage ordinance; neither husband nor wife should depart from the other (1 Corinthians 7:11). But should a husband (as in the case of an unbeliever) leave his wife, she is not bound (as a slave [Arndt and Gingrich 1957, 205]) to follow the deserter (v. 15). And in the case of marital infidelity, the woman is granted the equal privilege of divorce and remarriage (cf. Matthew 19:9; Mark 10:11-12).
Second, inspiration clearly stresses the mutual dependence of men and women in Christ. Paul says, “Nevertheless, neither is the woman without the man, nor the man without the woman in the Lord” (1 Corinthians 11:11). Neither is complete without the other.
Third, in the matter of salvation, both stand on equal footing before God. Paul says concerning those who have obeyed the gospel: “There can be no male and female; for ye all are one in Christ Jesus” (Galatians 3:28). Professor Colin Brown observed:
This, however, is not a call to abolish all earthly relationships. Rather, it puts these relationships in the perspective of salvation history. As Paul goes on to say, “And if you are Christ’s then you are Abraham’s offspring, heirs according to promise” (Gal. 3:29; cf. also Rom. 10:2). All who are in Christ have the same status before God; but they do not necessarily have the same function (Brown 1976, 570).
Galatians 3:28 is certainly in harmony with 1 Peter 3:7, which makes it clear that women are “joint-heirs of the grace of life.”
Fourth, the New Testament authorizes woman a domain of authority within the home. Younger widows are advised to marry, bear children, and “rule the household” (1 Timothy 5:14). Lenski says:
“To rule the house” means as the wife and mother in the home, to manage the household affairs. This is the domain and province of woman, in which no man can compete with her. Its greatness and its importance should ever be held up as woman’s divinely intended sphere, in which all her womanly qualities and gifts find full play and happiest gratification (1961, 676).
This does not indicate, of course, that woman’s authority in the home equals the man’s. He is the head of the wife and she is to be in subjection to him willingly (Ephesians 5:22, 23). Yet, he should lovingly allow her the freedom to exercise authority in the management of domestic matters, for God has ordained it.
One historian has noted:
The way in which the Church began to lift woman up into privilege and hope was one of its most prompt and beautiful transformations from the blight of paganism. Too long in the darkness, she was now helped into the sunlight (Hurst 1897, 146).
Such a transformation impressed even the heathen world; Libanius, a pagan writer, exclaimed: “What women these Christians have!” (Pratt 1939, 3103).

The Divine Subordination of Woman

By divine design, man is to be the “head” of woman. This principle obtains in society at large, in the church, and in the home (1 Corinthians 11:3; Ephesians 5:22-24). The graduation of authority rests on two bases: first, the original constitution of the sexes as they were created; and, second, woman’s role in the fall.
Concerning the former, the Bible teaches:
  1. Woman was made as a help for man—not the reverse (Genesis 2:18, 20).
  2. Paul wrote: “For the man is not of the woman, but the woman of the man: for neither was the man created for the woman; but the woman for the man” (1 Corinthians 11:8-9).
  3. Again, “For Adam was first formed, then Eve” (1 Timothy 2:13).
As to woman’s role in the fall, she believed Satan’s lie that she might become as God, hence, was “beguiled” (Genesis 3:13; 2 Corinthians 11:3) or “deceived” (1 Timothy 2:14), whereas Adam, laboring under no such deception (1 Timothy 2:14), merely sinned due to his weakness for the woman (Genesis 3:12). Accordingly, woman’s subjection was increased after her fall (v. 16).
These facts do not suggest that woman is inferior to man, but they do mean (to those who respect the testimony of Scripture) that she is subordinate in rank to man. It ought to be emphasized that as Christ’s subjection to the Father involved no deprivation of dignity (Philippians 2:5-11), so there is none in woman’s subjection to man. Thus, as we shall presently observe, because of these historical facts, the sphere of woman’s activity has been divinely limited.

Women’s “Lib” or the Word of God?

There is the saying: “From Adam’s rib to Women’s Lib, you’ve come a long way, baby.” Indeed! Some have gone a considerable distance from the word of God. Every significant movement within society eventually—to some degree—makes itself felt in the church.
The phenomenon of “women’s liberation” is no exception. There are those in the body of Christ who are clamoring that women must throw off the yoke of male domination and claim their rightful place in the Lord’s kingdom. Some are suggesting that women may be elders, preachers, and leaders in public worship.
There have been two basic approaches to this problem. Some have adopted a completely modernistic stance by asserting that certain “troubling passages” in the New Testament are merely the result of Pharisaic and Rabbinic prejudices, reflecting the backward ignorance of the first century. And so, such passages are not authoritative for today’s church.
Others, attempting to assume a more conservative position, claim there is biblical support for feminine equality in leadership roles. It is, however, the burden of this presentation to show that there is no scriptural authority for women elders, women preachers, or women worship leaders.
First, it hardly should be necessary to labor over the point that no woman is authorized to serve as an elder; the Bible is clear on this matter. The elder is to be the “husband [Greek, aner, a male as opposed to a woman (Arndt and Gingrich, 65)] of one wife” (Titus 1:6; 1 Timothy 3:2). The “elder women” (presbuteras) of 1 Timothy 5:2 (cf. Titus 2:3) are simply older women in contrast to the younger (neoterous); they are not church leaders.
Second, the New Testament does not authorize a female (public-preaching) ministry, but rather absolutely prohibits such. Perhaps the most effective way to approach this matter is to examine some of the currently circulated arguments in support of women preachers.

“Prophesying Women”

The New Testament speaks of women prophesying (Acts 2:18; 21:9; 1 Corinthians 11:5). It is assumed that prophesying was preaching, hence, women of the first century preached.
The word “prophesy” is from two Greek roots, pro (forth) and phemi (to speak). It is a very general term which means “to teach, refute, reprove, admonish, [or] comfort” (Thayer 1958, 553; cf. 1 Corinthians 14:3). It also can suggest the idea of “giving thanks and praising God” (1 Chronicles 25:3). The meaning of the word must be determined by the context in which it occurs, as well as from other information in the Scriptures.
Paul limits the extent of a woman’s “forth-speaking” (teaching, etc.) when he writes: “I permit not a woman to teach, nor to have dominion over a man, but to be in quietness” (1 Timothy 2:12). The negative conjunction oude (nor) is explanatory in force, thus revealing that the kind of teaching prohibited by the apostle is that which assumes dominion over the man (Lenski, 563).
Certainly women may teach (cf. Titus 2:3); they may, in certain ways, teach men. There is a reciprocal teaching in singing (Colossians 3:16), and privately, in conjunction with her husband, Priscilla was involved in teaching Apollos (Acts 18:26). But a woman may not assume the formal position of teacher, with the man subordinated to the role of student, without violating a New Testament command.

“Women Served as Church Deacons”

On the basis of Romans 16:1-2, some have contended that:
  1. Phoebe was a church official (deacon);
  2. the church was to “assist her,” thus implying her authority over the church; and,
  3. she had been a “helper” (prostatis) of many, implying that she had a role of “authority, discipline, over-seeing.”
All of this is supposed to show that Phoebe was a preacher-leader in the early church.
In response:
  1. The word diakonos simply means a “servant” (Matthew 23:11; John 2:5, etc.), and any “official” attachment to the term must be demanded by the context, as in Philippians 1:1 and 1 Timothy 3:8, 12.
  2. The fact that the saints were encouraged to “assist” Phoebe did not imply her authority over them. The Greek word paristemi meant to “come to the aid of, help, stand by” (Arndt and Gingrich, 633). When Paul said, “the Lord stood by pareste me” (2 Timothy 4:17), he certainly was not asserting that he exercised authority over Christ!
  3. The word prostatis (helper) does not necessitate oversight. If so, then Phoebe exercised authority over Paul, for she had been his “helper” as well as others! Though it is found only here in the New Testament, this term, which can connote merely the idea of rendering assistance, is used in a third-century B.C. letter from a son to his father (the verbal form): “[T]here will be nothing of more importance for me than to look after you for the remainder of life, in a manner worthy of you, and worthy of me” (Moulton and Milligan 1963, 551).

Euodia and Syntyche: Paul’s “Fellow-Workers”

In Philippians 4:2-3, Paul says that Euodia and Syntyche “labored” with him in the gospel; he calls them, along with others, his “fellow-workers.” Again, the assumption is made that this necessitates an authoritarian position comparable to the apostle’s.
The assumption is unwarranted. Christians are said to be “God’s fellow-workers” (1 Corinthians 3:9); obviously, this does not suggest that we are authorized to act as deity! Countless Christian ladies have assisted gospel preachers in numerous ways without ever having become public preachers.

“Junia Was an Apostle”

It is said that Junia (KJV), a woman, was an apostle, and therefore she certainly occupied a position of authority in the primitive church (Romans 16:7).
In the first place, in the Greek text the name is Junian (in the accusative case—the gender of the name is not evident); it could be either Junia (feminine), or more likely, Junias (masculine). Origen, a writer of the third century A.D., considered it a reference to a man (Lightfoot 1957, 96).
But secondly, it is not even certain that Junias is here identified as an “apostle.” The phrase, “of note among the apostles” (ASV), is rendered by Zahn as “famed, mentioned with honor in the circle of the apostles” (1909, 418), thus yielding the sense of being well-known by the apostles, rather than actually being an apostle.
In the third place, the word apostle is used occasionally in the Bible in a non-technical sense to denote merely a messenger. Jesus says that “one sent” (apostolos) is not greater than the sender (John 13:16). The word need not imply one who has dominion over another, nor even a preacher.

“Women Preachers Authorized by the Law”

Some argue that Paul’s admonition that women be in subjection is limited by the expression, “as also saith the law” (1 Corinthians 14:34). Since the law allowed women prophets (as in the case of Miriam, Huldah, and Anna), and even a woman judge (Deborah), so, preaching executives are permissible in the church today.
In response we must point out:
  1. When Miriam prophesied it was “all the women” that went out after her (Exodus 15:20), and there is no evidence that she preached to men.
  2. Though Huldah was a prophetess, the solitary record of her prophesying involved some men going to her where they communed privately (2 Kings 22:14ff; 2 Chronicles 34:22ff). It is impossible to find public preaching here.
  3. Anna was a prophetess “who departed not from the temple” (Luke 2:36-38). In describing the temple, Josephus (The Wars of the Jews, 5.5.2) says: “[T]here was a partition built for the women” that separated them from the men; this was “the proper place wherein they were to worship.” It cannot be proved that Anna publicly preached to mixed audiences.
  4. Deborah was a prophetess of the hill country of Ephraim, but there is no indication that she publicly proclaimed God’s message to the multitudes; rather, “the children of Israel came unto her for judgment” (Judges 4:5). She gave prophetic judgment as a “mother in Israel” (5:7). The fact that she judged at all is a dramatic commentary on the sickening weakness of the Israelites during this period, and Deborah’s song (chapter 5) laments this woeful condition. This was but one of those occasions where Jehovah accommodated his working to Israel’s weaknesses (cf. 1 Samuel 8:9; Matthew 19:8).

“1 Corinthians 14:33 Does Not Apply Today”

May 1 Corinthians 14:33 be used to oppose women preachers? One view contends it may not be. It is alleged that contextual considerations indicate that the meeting contemplated in 1 Corinthians 14 is not comparable to any convened in the church today. And so, supposedly, these verses are not applicable to church assemblies today (Woods 1976, 106-112).
Another view, with much greater weight, recognizes that 1 Corinthians 14 has to do primarily with a unique first-century situation, i.e., the reception of spiritual gifts. Nevertheless, it sees Paul, in this context, as enunciating essentially the same principle as that set forth in 1 Timothy 2:12ff.
H. P. Hamann writes:
If we have the same writer in both letters writing on the same matter, we have the right to allow one text to explain the other, and especially to let the clearer or more definite throw light on the less precise. So 1 Timothy 2 is the key for the understanding of 1 Corinthians 14 (1976, 8).
It is certain that 1 Corinthians 14:33ff lends no support to the notion of women preachers. A sexually integrated female preaching ministry is not sanctioned anywhere in the Scriptures.

The New Testament Is Clear

Finally, the New Testament makes it clear that males are to lead the acts of worship in assemblies of mixed sexes. In 1 Timothy 2:8, Paul instructs that “the men [andras – accusative plural of aner, males only] pray in every place.” Women may certainly pray (1 Corinthians 11:5), and it hardly would be denied that, in some sense, she could pray in every place.
However, there is another sense in which only males may pray in every place. Obviously, it is the leading of prayers in mixed groups that is restricted to the man. Commenting upon this verse, a noted Greek scholar has well said, “The ministers of public prayer must be the men of the congregation, not the women” (White 1956, 106). The same principle, of course, would also apply to other acts of public worship.

“What About Culture?”

It has become fashionable to assert that Paul’s teaching regarding feminine subordination was aimed at conformity to the culture of his day—somewhat like instructions concerning slavery. And so, it is claimed, just as the New Testament contained seeds for the abolition of slavery, it also contained the seeds for woman’s eventual full equality with man in church life.
The alleged parallel is simply not valid. In the four major contexts where Paul discusses male-female relationships (1 Corinthians 11:2-16; 14:33b-35; Ephesians 5:22-23; 1 Timothy 2:8-15), the principle of subjection, as well as its application to specific situations, are grounded upon historical facts related to the origin and constitution of human relationships, and not upon culture.
While it is important to study ancient culture so as to better understand the Bible, it must not be an overriding factor in interpretation. To substitute culture for a stated apostolic reason is to turn exegesis into eisegesis, i.e., thrusting a foreign meaning into the text (Sproul 1976, 13ff).

Concluding Remarks

It is regrettable that such major attention must be given to the negative side of this issue, but such appears to be necessary in view of prevalent error currently being propagated.
The New Testament abounds with examples of godly women who, consistent with their assigned roles, served their Master with dignity and honor. Yes, women whose names will be remembered with admiration long after the modern-day feminists are gone and forgotten!
God’s women make a vital contribution to the kingdom of Christ on earth. Whether they are continuing steadfastly in prayer (Acts 1:14), doing good works and almsdeeds (9:36), showing hospitality (12:12; 16:14; 1 Timothy 5:10), teaching the word in harmony with divine authority (Acts 18:26; Titus 2:3-4), being good wives (Proverbs 31:10ff), rearing godly children (2 Timothy 1:5; 3:14-15), or accomplishing various other commendable tasks, let us “rise up and call them blessed.” And may their name be Legion!
NOTE: Some contend that the principle in 1 Corinthians 11:2-16 is binding today, but not Paul’s specific application (Roberts 1959, 183ff). Others, including this author, believe that both the subjection principle and its specific application are required today (see Jackson 1971).]

Benny Hinn

Kathryn Kulhman